case study for class 10 english

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CBSE 10th Standard English Subject Case Study Questions with Solutions

By QB365 on 20 May, 2021

QB365 Provides the updated CASE Study Questions for Class 10 , and also provide the detail solution for each and every case study questions . Case study questions are latest updated question pattern from NCERT, QB365 will helps to get  more marks in Exams

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Case Based (Factual) Unseen Passages: Practice English Grammar for School Classes

• Post last modified: 17 September 2022
• Post category: Grammar Exercises / School Grammar

What are Case Based (Factual Passages)? Simply put, factual passages are those passages, which let the readers imagine and feel the factual qualities of a topic as mentioned in the passage. The topic can be about a place, person, thing or event. A factual passage tells the reader about the consecutive things related to the topic in detail, occurring in an orderly manner.

Case Based (Factual) Passages

1. read the passage given below: [cbse set 2, 2021-22] .

• Milkha Singh, also known as The Flying Sikh, was an Indian track and field sprinter who was introduced to the sport while serving in the Indian Army. He is the only athlete to win gold in 400 metres at the Asian Games as well as the Commonwealth Games. He also won gold medals in the 1958 and 1962 Asian Games. He represented India in the 1956 Summer Olympics in Melbourne, the 1960 Summer Olympics in Rome and the 1964 Summer Olympics in Tokyo) He was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian honour, in recognition of his sporting achievements 
• The race for which Singh is best remembered is his fourth-place finish in the 400 metres final at the 1960 Olympic Games. He led the race till the 200 m mark before easing off, allowing others to pass him. Singh’s fourth-place time of 45.73 seconds was the Indian national record for almost 40 years. 
• From beginnings that saw him orphaned and displaced during the partition of India, Singh became a sporting icon in the country. In 2008, journalist Rohit Baijnath described Singh as “the finest athlete India has ever produced”. 
• He was disappointed with his debut performance at the 1956 Melbourne Olympics. *1 returned to India, chastened by my poor performance in Melbourne. I had been so excited by the prospects of being part of the Indian Olympics team, but, hadn’t realized how strong and professional the competition would be. My success in India had filled me with a false sense of pride and it was only when I was on the track that I saw how inconsequential my talents were when pitted against superbly fit and seasoned athletes. It was then that I understood what competition actually meant, and that if I wanted to succeed on the international arena, I must be prepared to test my mettle against the best athletes in the world.” 
• Then he decided to make sprinting the sole focus of his life. “Running had thus become my God, my religion and my beloved”. My life during those two years was governed by strict rules and regulations and a self-imposed penance. Every morning I would rise at the crack of dawn, get into my sports kit and dash off to the track, where I would run two or three miles cross-country in the company of my coach.” 
• On how he pushed himself through the tough days of vigorous training. “I practiced so strenuously that often I was drained of all energy, and there were times when I would increase my speed to such an extent that after my rounds, I would vomit blood or drop-down down unconscious through sheer exercise. My doctors and coaches warned me, asked me to slow down to maintain my health and equilibrium but my determination was too strong to give up. My only focus was to become the best athlete in the world. But then images of    a    packed    stadium    filled    with    cheering    spectators, wildly applauding me as I crossed the finishing line, would flash across my mind and I would start again, encouraged by visions of victory.” 

Based on your reading answer any five questions from the six given below: 1×5=5  

(i) What is Milka Singh known as? What realization did Milkha Singh have when he was on the track during the Melbourne Olympics?  

(ii) List any two of Milkha Singh’s achievements.  

(iii)  What strict rules and regulations did Milkha Singh follow?  

(iv)  State two consequences of his hard and strenuous practice.  

(v)  What motivated Milkha Singh to become the best athlete in the world?  

(vi)  Explain the phrase ‘I would start again’ in the last sentence. 

1. Milkha Singh was known as ‘The Flying Sikh’. 

He realised how inconsequential his talents were when pitied against superbly fit seasoned athletes. He also realised that he needed to prepare well to test his mettle against the best athletes in the world. 

2. (i) The only athlete to win 400 meters at the Asian Games as well as Commonwealth Games. 

(ii) Won gold in 1958 and 1962 Asian Games. His national record stood unbroken for 40 years. 

(iii) He was awarded Padam Shiri for his sporting achievements. 

3. Every morning he would rise at the crack of the dawn, get into his sports kit and dash off to the track, where he would run two or three miles cross-country with his coach. 

4. ( i) He was drained of all energy. 

(ii) He would vomit blood or drop-down unconscious through sheer exercise. 

5. He was motivated by his vision of victory at a packed stadium with spectators cheering and applauding him as he crossed the finishing line. 

6. ‘I would start again’ means here that he was encouraged to shun any complacency and start again with the double energy and determination to become the best athlete. 

Q. Read the following excerpt from a Case Study. J.K. Rowling – A Journey. [CBSE SET 2, 2022] 

The story of Joanne Kathleen Rowling’s near magical rise to fame is almost as well known as the characters she creates. 

Rowling was constantly writing and telling stories to her younger sister Dianne. “The first story I ever wrote down was about a rabbit called Rabbit.” Rowling said in an interview. “He got the measles and was visited by his friends including a giant bee called Miss Bee. And ever since Rabbit and Miss Bee, I have always wanted to be a writer, though I rarely told anyone so. 

However, my parents, both of whom come from impoverished backgrounds and neither of whom had been to college, took the view that my overactive imagination was an amusing personal quirk that would never pay a mortgage or secure a pension. 

A writer from the age of six, with two unpublished novels in the * drawer, she was stuck on a train when Harry walked into her mind fully formed. She spent the next five years constructing the plots of seven books, one for every year of his secondary school life. 

Rowling says she started writing the first book, Harry’ Potter and the Sorcerer’s Stone, in Portugal, where she was teaching English. 

At first nobody wanted to publish Harry Potter.  She was told that plot was too complex. Refusing to compromise, she found a publisher. 

n 1997 Rowling received her first royalty cheque. By book three, she had sky rocketed to the top of the publishing world. A row of zeroes appeared on the author’s bank balance and her life was turned upside down. Day and night she had journalists knocking on the unanswered door of her flat. 

Rowling’s quality control has become legendary, as her obsession with accuracy. She’s thrilled with Stephen Fry’s taped version of the books and outraged that an Italian dust jacket showed Harry minus his glasses. “Don’t they understand that the glasses are the clue to his vulnerability.” 

Annual earnings of J.K. Rowling from 2010 to 2019 

On the basis of your understanding of the passage answer any five of the six questions given below. 1×5=5 

(i) Explain J.K. Rowling’s ‘near magical rise to fame’. 

(ii) What reason did the publishers give for rejecting Rowling’s book?  

(iii) What was the drawback of achieving fame? 

(iv) Why was Rowling outraged with the Italian dust jacket? 

(v)  Find a word in the last para that means the same as ‘insecure/helpless. 

(vi) According to the graph, how many years did it take Rowling to become very successful?

(i) Jk Rowling’s near magical rise to fame is well known as the character she creates I.e. her popular characters led her to magical fame. She was on top of the world of publishing house after the book three was published and her bank balance increased tremendously.  

(ii) She was told that her plot of Harry Potter was too complex. 

(iii) The draw back was that she was approached day and night by journalists knocking at the door of her flat. It was becoming a nuisance and she did not respond all of them. 

(iv) She was obsessed with quality and accuracy and therefore was outraged at an Italian just Jacket for showing Harry without glasses. 

(v) vulnerability 

(v) It took around 6 years for Rowlings to become very successful.

Q. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

India Covid-19 numbers explained

1. With novel Coronavirus spreading rapidly all over the country, there are only three states right now, Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, that have less than 1,000 people infected with the disease.

2. Lakshadweep, of course, still hasn’t reported even a single case till now, the only region in India entirely free of the epidemic.

3. Otherwise, even the relatively smaller states now have significantly large spread of the disease. Goa, for example, has seen more than 7,000 of its people infected by the virus till now. Tripura has over 5,500 cases, while Manipur has more than 3,000, and Nagaland a little less than 2,500. Puducherry has more than 4,000 cases, while even Daman and Diu has over 1,300 people infected.

4. And in each of these states, the numbers are rising at a fast pace, at a rate higher than the national level. The infections had initially reached these states in the first and second week of May, when the lockdown was relaxed for the first time to enable people stuck in different parts of the country to return to their native places.

5. After a period of very slow growth, the number of cases have begun to rise rapidly in the last one month. In Goa, for example, the total number of infected people has nearly doubled in the last 15 days. Same has happened in Puducherry, as well.

6. Tuesday was one of those rare occasions when the number of active cases in the country, those who are yet to recover from the disease, went down compared to the previous day. That is because the number of recoveries, combined with the number of deaths, exceeded the new cases that were detected on Tuesday.

7. With over 52,500 new cases detected in the country, the total number of infections crossed 19 lakh, out of `which 12.82 lakh people have recovered from the disease. The number of dead is now close to 40,000.

8. The number of recoveries on Tuesday was the highest-ever for a single day. More than 51,700 people were declared to have been recovered. Three days earlier, the number of recoveries had crossed 50,000 for the first time, but in the next two days the number had fallen to much lower levels.

Choose the correct option to answer the questions based on the above passage and graphics. Do any ten.

(a) How are these three states – Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands – different from the rest of India? (i) they are the only states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (ii) they are three of the five states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (iii) they are the only states to have less than 2,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (iv) none of these

(b) __________ is the only region in India which is entirely free of the epidemic. (i) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (ii) Maharashtra (iii) Lakshadweep (iv) Tripura

(c) What is common among Goa, Tripura, Manipur, Nagaland, Puducherry and Daman and Diu? (i) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates lower than the national level (ii) the numbers are falling at a fast pace at rates equal than the national level (iii) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates higher than the national level (iv) none of these

(d) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of climate in the present times. (i) 1 and 4 (ii) 2 and 6 (iii) 1 and 3 (iv) 3 and 5

(e) Which date in the graph shows the highest jump of detected cases in a day? (i) July 30 (ii) July 31 (iii) August 1 (iv) August 2

(f) Of the 19 lakh infected cases, how many have recovered? (i) 11.82 lakh (ii) 13.82 lakh (iii) 12.81 lakh (iv) 12.82 lakh

(g) More than 51,700 people were declared to have been recovered on _______. (i) Wednesday (ii) Sunday (iii) Tuesday (iv) Monday

(h) When had the number of recoveries crossed 50,000 for the first time? (i) two days earlier (ii) Tuesday (iii) three days earlier than Tuesday (iv) none of these

(i) Which word in the passage means the same as “quickly”? (i) rapidly (ii) significantly (iii) native (iv) rare

(j) Which word in the passage is opposite in meaning to “indigenous”? (i) rapidly (ii) significantly (iii) native (iv) rare

Answers: (a) (i) they are the only states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (b) (iii) Lakshadweep (c) (iii) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates higher than the national level (d) (iii) 1 and 3 (e) (ii) July 31 (f) (iv) 12.82 lakh (g) (iii) Tuesday (h) (iii) three days earlier than Tuesday (i) (i) rapidly (j) (iii) native

Australia’s 2019-2020 Bushfire Season was not Normal

• Data from satellite sources assembled by the United Nations Environment Programme’s (UNEP) World Environment Situation Room confirms that the wildfires in Australia in the last two months of 2019 and the first six weeks of 2020 were far from normal. 2019 was the second hottest year on record since 1880, and Australia recorded its warmest temperatures ever in December 2019.
• “Rising temperatures continue to melt records. The past decade was the hottest on record. Scientists tell us that ocean temperatures are now rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second. One million species are in near-term danger of extinction. Our planet is burning,” says United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres.
• “The trend is very clear: 37 of the last 40 years were the warmest recorded since 1880, and the six warmest years recorded were the last six years,” says Pascal Peduzzi, Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database in Geneva. “For those who think Australia is always burning, graphs clearly show that these fires were exceptional.”
• “This service, accessible via the UNEP’s World Environment Situation Room, is provided for all countries at national and provincial levels. It identifies trends in wildfire activity since 2003, when the data first became available and monitoring began. We have sliced and diced the satellite-based data on wildfires worldwide from 2009 to the present day. We analyse the wildfires’ data by month, type of land cover, protected area, province and nation to produce information products,” Peduzzi adds. (Source: UN Environment)

(a) What do the reports confirm about the 2019-20 Australian fires? (i) the fires were not normal (ii) the fires were normal (iii) the fires were natural (iv) data inconclusive

(b) What was the difference in the recorded temperatures in 2019 from the 1880s? (i) 2019 recorded the wettest temperatures since 1880s (ii) 2019 recorded the hottest temperatures ever (iii) 2019 recorded the cooler temperatures than 1880s (iv) 2019 recorded the warmest temperatures since 1880s

(c) What comparison has been made between the rising sea temperatures and Hiroshima? (i) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of three Hiroshima bombs a second (ii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second (iii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs an hour (iv) none of these

(d) Choose the option that lists the CORRECT answers for the following:

“Rising temperatures continue to melt records. The past decade was the hottest on record. Scientists tell us that ocean temperatures are now rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second”. Whose statement is this?

“The trend is very clear: 37 of the last 40 years were the warmest recorded since 1880, and the six warmest years recorded were the last six years.” Whose statement is this?

(i) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the UN President (ii) (1) is from the UN President and (2) is from the UN General Secretary (iii) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the Director of UNEP (iv) (1) is from the UN General Secretary and (2) is from the UN President

(e) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of climate in the present times. (i) 1 and 3 (ii) 2 and 6 (iii) 3 and 4 (iv) 5 and 6

(f) Which of the following independent data source is NOT PRESENT in the given graph? (i) NASA (ii) NOAA (iii) ISRO (iv) JMA

(g) Choose the option that lists the CORRECT statement. (i) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Renaissance Information Database (ii) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNO’s Global Resource Information Database (iii) Pascal Peduzzi is the Manager of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database (iv) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database

(h) How can you say that the UN is concerned about the rising numbers of coal plants? (i) UNDP Secretary General António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (ii) UN Secretary General António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (iii) UN Executive Secretary António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (iv) UN Secretary General Antony Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants

(i) UNEP’s World Environment Situation Room has been tracking the world temperatures since. (i) 2003 (ii) 2013 (iii) 2000 (iv) 2001

(j) The graph compiled with data from four different sources shows that the global surface temperatures have been _ . (i) steady (ii) falling (iii) on the rise (iv) none of these

(k) Which word in the passage means the same as “collect”? (i) assembled (ii) extinction (iii) exceptional (iv) provincial

(l) Which word in the passage is opposite to the meaning of ‘vague/murky’? (i) assembled (ii) clear (iii) extinction (iv) provincial

(a) (i) the fires were not normal (b) (iv) 2019 recorded the warmest temperatures since 1880s (c) (ii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second (d) (iii) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the Director of UNEP (e) (i) 1 and 3 (f) (iii) ISRO (g) (iv) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database (h) (ii) UN secretary general António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (i) (i) 2003 (j) (iii) on the rise (k) (i) assembled (l) (ii) clear

Q. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE, 2019]

Hyderabad — The City of Nizams GOLCONDA

1. In the 16th century, when Golconda was the capital of Qutb Shahi Kingdom, it is believed that a shepherd boy came across an idol on the hill. It was then that the Kakatiya dynasty’s ruler built the fort, which is 120 m high. After it was captured by Aurangzeb, the Mughal emperor, the fort fell into ruins.

2. The beautiful ruins of the fort have a story to tell. They make you wonder how the fort may have looked in its days of glory and grandeur. The fort also organises a sound and light show every day and the history of this fort is narrated in such an interesting manner that even a child can understand and enjoy it. The climb to the fort is a difficult one and unless you are physically fit, you should avoid the climb and relax in the gardens below. The view from the top is breath-taking.

3. The next place is Charminar. The literal meaning of the monument is ‘four minarets’. There is a mosque on the second floor. It is said that when the state was hit by severe plague, Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, prayed to end the plague and promised to build a mosque in the very place where he was praying. Thus, Charminar came into being!

4. The walk from the bottom to the top of the monument is a little frightening, owing to the narrowness of the pathway and the steepness of the steps. Once you reach the top, the view of the crowds moving below will surely lift your spirits.

5. Make sure you visit the nearby Laad Bazaar, where there are rows of shops selling the famous Hyderabadi glass bangles and lac bangles.

SALAR JUNG MUSEUM

6. The Salar Jung Museum is the third largest museum in the country and boasts of owning the biggest one-man collection of antiques in the world. A visit to the Salar Jung Museum is a must even if you are not a fan of antique stuff. You can view the Nizam’s collection of textiles, arms, metalware, ivory carvings, Indian bronzes and carpets.

7. The main attraction is definitely the Musical Clock, made by Cook and Kelvy of England. Inside the clock is a timekeeper. Every hour, he comes out and beats a gong as many times as the time indicates. Another attraction of the museum is the Veiled Rebecca, an amazing sculpture made by the Italian sculptor, Giovanni Maria Benzoni.

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer any ten of the following questions: (any eight) (a) What led to the construction of the Golconda Fort? (b) What led to the destruction of the Golconda Fort? (c) How is the interest in the Fort kept alive? (d) What does the word ‘breath-taking’ in para 2 mean? (e) Why did Quli Qutb Shah build a mosque? (f) How does one feel after reaching the top of Charminar? (g) What is unique about the Salar Jung Museum? (h) What else can one find in this museum apart from antiques? (i) Name the two attractions of the Salar Jung Museum.

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Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10

Table of Contents

In this post, I’m sharing with you a “ Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10 ” that’s often found in the CBSE Class 10th Board Exam. If you want to do well in English, you should practise this part a lot. It’s crucial for the upcoming CBSE board exam in 2023-24. Writing skills is very important for board exams.

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Read the passage given below.

1. There are innumerable villages in India which have fewer than 500 residents. Many people from the other cities in India head to one of these sanctuaries to wash away all the hardships of an ultramodern life.

2. With a population of just 289, the tribal village of Ha is the smallest named place in the country which is located at an altitude of 4,780 ft. in the Kurung Kumey district of Arunachal Pradesh. The village is known for its brilliant natural beauty and the Menga caves which are dedicated to Lord Shiva.

3. Located about 27 km from Keylong in Himachal Pradesh, the village of Shansha has a population of 320 people in 72 houses. The hamlet is located close to the Tandi Kishtwar road which is generally a pit stop for those adventure-seeking individuals who ride through this dangerous route. The hamlet of Shansha is home to a greenhouse which is located at a height of 10,000 ft. and provides aid to the locals living and working in this highly challenging terrain.

Factual Passage for Class 10

4. One might think the entire state of Goa is filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks, but there is another side of the tiny state which is known for its isolated villages. Xelpem, also known as Shelpem, is an example of one such place which is located on the banks of Salaulim river and has a population of just 255.

5. The village of Sankri in Uttarakhand is the base camp of many treks and is well known for being the last village which has a market on the way to the Har ki Dun Trek, Kedarkantha. The hamlet has just 77 homes out of which three are small guest houses and has a population of about 270 people. Most families welcome the trekkers to stay at their homes as well.

6. One amongst the most scenic and hidden gems of Nagaland is the village of Nitoi. The village has a population of about 402 people and boasts of an 80% literacy rate even in its small population. The small hamlet can be reached from Kiphire which is an 8-hour drive from Kohima.

• Important Passage for 10 CBSE Board

Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10 mcq

On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.

(1) The purpose of this passage is to provide awareness regarding the _____. Choose the correct option. (a) tiny towns and cities in India (b) small villages and hamlets in India (c) small hamlets and cities in India (d) isolated tribes in India

(2) Select the option that is true for the two statements given below. (i) Shansha has a population of 320 people in 72 houses. (ii) The hamlet of Shansha is home to a greenhouse. (a) (i) contradicts (ii). (b) (ii) is the reason for (i). (c) (i) is independent of (ii). (d) (ii) is the result of (i).

(3) Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the following statement. “Most families welcome the trekkers to stay at their homes as well.” (a) The hamlet consists of only guest houses for trekkers. (b) People from Sankri village aren’t fond of any visitors. (c) The hamlet has just 77 homes with a population of about 270 people. (d) People from Sankri village keep their doors open for guests.

(4) According to the passage, the greenhouse in Shansha is essential for the people because______. (a) it provides aid to the trekkers living and working in this highly challenging terrain. (b) it is the only source of food in the mountains. (c) it provides aid to the locals at a height of 10,000 ft. in this highly challenging terrain. (d) it is a major tourist attraction of that village.

(5) Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to. ‘The village has a population of about 402 people and boasts of an 80% literacy rate even in its small population.’ (i) The village has a population of 402 literate people. (ii) The population of the village is 80% illiterate. (iii) The 80% of the population is not illiterate. (iv) The population of the village is limited to 402 individuals. (v) The village boasts high literacy rate even in its small population. (a) (i), (ii) and (v) (b) (ii), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)

(6) The Menga caves from the village of Ha in Arunachal Pradesh are dedicated to which deity? (a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Krishna (c) Lord Ganesha (d) Lord Vishnu

• Unseen Passage for Class 10

Factual Passage for Class 10 with Answers

(7) This passage lists an example of the tiny villages in India where _______. Select the correct option. (a) people come for good business opportunities (b) people come to wash away all their sins in the holy pilgrimage sites (c) people come to escape all the hardships of an ultra-modern life (d) people have just discovered their existence and are not yet listed on maps

(8) Choose the correct option to answer the following: According to paragraph 4, ‘One might think the entire state of Goa is filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks.’ This is so because: (a) Goa is famous for its small naturally scenic villages. (b) Goa is generally advertised as such in popular media. (c) not much is known about the beaches and shacks of Goa. (d) people don’t care about the natural diversity in Goa.

(9) The tribal village of Ha, the smallest named place in the country, is located at an altitude of…… (a) 4,280 ft. (b) 4,580 ft. (c) 4,780 ft. (d) 4,980 ft.

(10) The village of Nitoi is described as_______ (a) scenic and hidden gem of Himachal. (b) filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks. (c) a pit stop for adventure-seeking individuals. (d) scenic and hidden gem of Nagaland.

(11) Which word in the passage means ‘distress’? (a) dangerous (b) hardships (c) innumerable (d) isolated

(12) Which word in the passage is opposite to the meaning of ‘unstimulating’? (a) working (b) literacy (c) sanctuaries (d) challenging

Factual Passage with Answer & Explanation

1. Ans. (b) small villages and hamlets in India 2. Ans. (c) (1) is independent of (2). 3. Ans. (d) People from Sankri village keep their doors open for guests. 4. Ans. (c) it provides aid to the locals at a height of 10,000 ft. in this highly challenging terrain. 5. Ans. (d) (3), (4) and (5) 6. Ans. (a) Lord Shiva 7. Ans. (c) people come to escape all the hardships of an ultra-modern life 8. Ans. (b) Goa is generally advertised as such in popular media. 9. Ans. (c) 4,780 ft. 10. Ans. (d) scenic and hidden gem of Nagaland. 11. Ans. (b) hardships 12. Ans. (d) challenging

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NCERT Solutions for CBSE Class 10 English(2021-2022)

CBSE Class 10  Science CBSE Class 10 Social Science CBSE Class 10 Maths

CBSE Class 10 English Syllabus 2021-2022

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight (Prose)

• Chapter 1 A Letter to God
• Chapter 2 Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom
• Chapter 3 Two Stories about Flying
• Chapter 4 From the Diary of Anne Frank
• Chapter 5 The Hundred Dresses – I
• Chapter 6 The Hundred Dresses – II
• Chapter 7 Glimpses of India
• Chapter 8 Mijbil the Otter
• Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus
• Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares
• Chapter 11 The Proposal

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight (Poem)

• Chapter 1 Dust of Snow
• Chapter 2 Fire and Ice
• Chapter 3 A Tiger in the Zoo
• Chapter 4 How to Tell Wild Animals
• Chapter 5 The Ball Poem
• Chapter 6 Amanda
• Chapter 7 Animals
• Chapter 8 The Trees
• Chapter 9 Fog
• Chapter 10 The Tale of Custard the Dragon
• Chapter 11 For Anne Gregory

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Supplementary Reader Footprints without Feet

• Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery
• Chapter 2 The Thief’s Story
• Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor
• Chapter 4 A Question of Trust
• Chapter 5 Footprints without Feet
• Chapter 6 The Making of a Scientist
• Chapter 7 The Necklace
• Chapter 8 The Hack Driver
• Chapter 9 Bholi
• Chapter 10 The Book that Saved the Earth

CBSE Class 10 English Grammar

CBSE Class 10 English Grammar Complete Material Prepared by English Subject Experts for 2020-2021 Board Exams as Per CBSE (NCERT) guidelines.

A. Resource Material

• Active and Passive Voice
• Subject-Verb Concord
• Direct and Indirect Speech
• Determiners
• Prepositions

B. Integrated Grammar

• Gap Filling
• Sentence Reordering
• Sentence Transformation

CBSE Class 10 English Language & Literature Syllabus 2020-2021 (Revised)

Check the Revised CBSE Class 10 English Language and Literature syllabus to know the prescribed topics, internal assessment scheme, question paper design and other necessary details for the academic session 2020-2021.

CBSE has released the revised syllabus for all subjects of class 10. The syllabus has been reduced by 30% for the effective assessment of students. Students must go through the complete syllabus to know the chapters and topics to be prepared this year. Developing a clear understanding of the CBSE Curriculum will help you achieve success in your first board examinations.  With this article, students may read and download the revised CBSE Class 10 English Language and Literature Syllabus for the current academic session 2020-2021.

Contents of CBSE Class 10 English (Language and Literature) syllabus 2020-21 are:

• Section-wise weightage for question paper
• Preparatory content for each section
• Division of marks in each section
• Prescribed books
• Components of Internal Assessment
• Textbook course
• Question paper design for the annual board examination

Find below the complete syllabus for CBSE Class 10 English Language and Literature:

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (Code No. 184) CLASS – X (2020-21) SECTION – WISE WEIGHTAGE IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Note: The annual examination will be of 80 marks, with a duration of three hours. There will be internal assessment for 20 Marks.

Reading   20 Marks

• Multiple Choice Questions based on a Discursive passage of 400-450 words to test inference, evaluation and vocabulary. Ten out of twelve questions to be answered. (10×1=10)
• Multiple Choice Questions based on a Case-based factual passage (with visual input statistical data, chart etc.) of 300-350 words to test analysis and interpretation. Ten out of twelve questions to be answered. (10×1=10)

(Total length of two passages to be 700-750 words).

Literature Textbooks  10 Marks

III. Multiple Choice Questions based on an extract from drama/prose to test inference, evaluation and vocabulary. Any 1 out of 2 extracts to be done. (5×1=5)

• Multiple Choice Questions based on an extract from poetry to test analysis and interpretation. Any 1 out of 2 extracts to be done (5×1=5)

Grammar 10 Marks

• Ten Multiple Choice Questions, out of twelve, to be answered. Questions shall be based on the following:
• Use of Passive Voice
• Clauses: Noun, Adverb, Relative

PART B – Subjective Questions (40 marks)

Writing 10 Marks

I. Formal letter (word limit 100-120 words) based on a given situation. One out of two questions is to be answered. (5 marks)

II. Writing an analytical paragraph (word limit 100-120 words) based on a given outline/ Data/ Chart/ Cue/s .One out of two questions is to be answered. (5 marks)

Literature 30 Marks

III. Four out of six Short Answer Type Questions to be answered in 20-30 words each from FIRST FLIGHT and FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET (two out of three from FIRST FLIGHT and two out of three from FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET). (2×4=8 marks)

IV. Four out of six Short Answer Type Questions to be answered in 40-50 words each from FIRST FLIGHT and FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET (two out of three from FIRST FLIGHT and two out of three from FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET). (3×4=12 marks)

V. One out of two Long Answer Type Questions from FIRST FLIGHT to be answered in about 100-120 words each to assess creativity, imagination and extrapolation beyond the text and across the texts. This can be a passage-based question taken from a situation/plot from the texts. (5 marks)

VI. One out of two Long Answer Type Questions from FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET on theme or plot involving interpretation, extrapolation beyond the text and inference or character sketch to be answered in about 100-120 words. (5 marks)

Prescribed Books:

Published by NCERT, New Delhi

FIRST FLIGHT – Text for Class X

• How to Tell Wild Animals
• Mijbil the Otter
• For Anne Gregory
• FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET – Supplementary Reader for Class X
• The Midnight Visitor
• A Question of Trust
• The Book That Saved The Earth
• WORDS AND EXPRESSIONS – II (WORKBOOK FOR CLASS X)

Guidelines for Assessment in Listening and Speaking Skills

(i) Activities

• Activities for listening and speaking available at www.cbseacademic.in can be used for developing listening and speaking skills of students.
• Subject teachers should also refer to books prescribed in the syllabus.
• In addition to the above, teachers may plan their own activities and create their own material for assessing the listening and speaking skills.

(ii) Parameters for Assessment:

The listening and speaking skills are to be assessed on the following parameters:

i. Interactive competence (Initiation & turn taking, relevance to the topic).

ii. Fluency (cohesion, coherence and speed of delivery).

iii. Pronunciation

iv. Language (accuracy and vocabulary).

(iii) Schedule:

• The practice of listening and speaking skills should be done throughout the academic year.
• The final assessment of the skills is to be done as per the convenience and schedule of the school.

(iv) Record keeping: The record of the activities done and the marks given must be kept for three months after the declaration of result, for any random checking by the Board.

No recording of speaking skills is to be sent to the Board.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

CLASS – X (2020-21)(Code no.184)

NCERT Solutions Class 10 English First Flight

English has been the cornerstone language for verbal communication around the world. By studying these  solutions, students will immerse themselves in the wonders of literary works and comprehend complex vocabulary and develop a thorough understanding of how to construct meaningful passages. These solutions are divided into three parts – Oral Comprehension Check, Thinking about the Text, and Thinking about the language. Oral Check examines student’s understanding of verbal communication and tests their spoken skills while the other two sections test student’s understanding of English content and vocabulary. The NCERT Solutions Class 10 English First Flight not only helps students understand topics in-depth but also enables them to master the language in the process, transforming them into conceptual thinkers and speakers of the English Language.

Below given are the chapter wise details of First Flight NCERT Class 10 English Solutions,

Chapter 1 – A Letter to God

Written by G.L. Fuentes, this story depicts the faith of a simple poor farmer named Lencho in God. He was an honest farmer. His crops were destroyed due to the hailstorm and thus he wrote a letter to God to send him money. The postmaster saw the letter and decided to help him. He collected some money and put in the envelope. When Lencho came to the post office, the office people gave him the envelope. This story is all about his faith and how postman helped him anonymously by collecting money in the name of God.

Chapter 2 – Nelson Mandela – Long Walk to Freedom

The chapter is all about Nelson Mandela, the first black President of South Africa. It begins with the description of the speeches and the inaugural ceremony of the newly elected president. Thereafter, the chapter takes you to the first decade of the twentieth century when the white supremacy introduced the system that made the life of the dark-skinned population as hell. It describes how Nelson Mandela and other black people have struggled at that time and how he joined the African National Congress and fought for his rights. It includes 18 questions and other exercises as well.

Chapter 3 – Two Stories about Flying

This chapter includes two parts namely His First Flight and Black Aeroplane. Both stories are related to the experiences of flying and are completely unique. The first one is written by Liam O’Flaherty and is about a young seagull who is afraid of flying. Here students will find why does he afraid and how does he conquer his fear. The second part is written by Frederick Forsyth where you’ll read the story of the pilot who got stuck in the storm clouds. The story tells the incident happens on the way and how he escapes death miraculously.

Chapter 4 – From the Diary of Anne Frank

The chapter is about the content written in the diary of Anne Frank. In the diary, she talks about being lonely despite being surrounded by family and friends. She immediately needs a true friend with whom she can share her feelings and thus she decides to write a diary. Unlike others, she doesn’t mention facts in the diary rather, she describes her background, her family, her early childhood and about her schooling. She decides to name her diary as a kitty. She decides to mention his math professor who gave her punishments in the form of essays on weird topics.

Chapter 5 – The Hundred Dresses – 1

This story is about a poor girl, Wanda Patronski, who goes to school with other American Children in an American Town. This chapter describes how this poor girl is judged by her classmates. Her classmates find her completely different in many ways. This story is based on the true experiences of the author about the girl who is teased by her classmates. She is always quiet and always wears the same faded blue dress to the school every day, although she claims to have a hundred dresses. This story is told from the perspective of one of Wanda’s classmates, Maddie.

Chapter 6 – The Hundred Dresses – 2

The story begins with the letter from Wanda’s father informing about their moving to a big city where no one would tease Wanda for their appearance and funny name. After knowing about the letter, the whole class realized their rude and derogatory attitude towards Wanda. Maddie and Peggy were regretting hard and she couldn’t concentrate on her studies. Both of them went to Wanda’s residence but that time they had already left. On Christmas, the teacher received another letter from Wanda informing that she had new dresses and thus the old one should be gifted to Maddie and Peggy.

Chapter 7 – Glimpses of India

This chapter comprises three parts namely A Baker from Goa, Coorg and Tea from Assam. All three parts are beautifully narrated. The first one is written by Lucie Rodrigues and is a pen-portrait of Goan village baker. Written by Lokesh Abrol, the second part is about Coorg which is a coffee town and is famous for its rainforests and spices. The third part describes the story of Pranjol, a youngster from Assam, whose father is a manager of tea-garden in Upper Assam. He has invited his friend Rajvir and explained to him about tea gardens. It is written by Arup Kumar Dalla.

Chapter 8 – Mijbil the Otter

The story is all about the author who loves pets but when his dog Jonnie died, he was too sad to think of keeping a dog again. He traveled to Southern Iraq and thought of having an Otter. He went to Basra to get an Otter and there he found Mijbil. Here, students will get to read what happened when the writer found Mijbil, how the narrator brought Mijbil to his place, was Mijbil comfortable with him, etc.

Chapter 9 – Madam Rides the Bus

This is a sensitive and heart-touching story of an eight years old girl’s first bus journey into the world outside her village. Valli tried to understand the mystery of life and death at a very tender age. The outside world for Valli was quite charming and this she decided to go to the town all by herself. She herself paid the bus fare and enjoyed the journey. She was trying to understand the meaning of life and death in her own terms. She returned home in time and none of the family members could know about her journey.

Chapter 10 – The Sermon at Benares

Written by Bretty Renshaw, this chapter covers the whole journey of Gautama Buddha right from the princehood to his saintly life. Students here will find why Gautama Buddha gave up all the worldly pleasures and sought enlightenment. He wandered for seven years and finally attained salvation under a tree at Bodhgaya. His first sermon was delivered at Benares as this place was considered holiest due to the presence of the Ganga River. This chapter describes how a person can attain the peace of mind and how one can draw out the arrow of lamentation, complaint and grief.

Chapter 11 – The Proposal

This story is written by Russian short story writer and dramatist Anton Chekhov. It is a one-act play which was originally titled as The Marriage Proposal. It is about the tendency of wealthy families to seek ties with other wealthy families. Ivan Lomov, a wealthy neighbor of Stepan Chubukov, also wealthy came to seek the hand of Chubukov’s daughter Natalya. All three were quarrelsome people. Here students will get to read what happened to the marriage proposal amidst their quarrel.

NCERT Solutions class 10 English Footprints without Feet

English is a global language that’s used interchangeably in various fields of education as well as in day-to-day conversations. The NCERT Solution for Class 10 English Footprints without feet have solutions to both objective and subjective questions that may appear in your question paper for the same. The variety of questions asked along with solutions and analysis of comprehension passages make it easy for students to enhance their vocabulary and grasp the use of various literary devices. Students also develop an appreciation for the language in the process as they improve their verbal and written communication skills by studying these solution. NCERT Solution act as a gateway to the mind of the examiner and by practicing these solutions, students can prepare thoroughly for the Class 10 CBSE Board exams. Below given are the chapter wise details of Class 10 English Footprints without feet.

Chapter 1 – A Triumph of Surgery

This story is about cute pet named Tricki who had put on a lot of weight which made him lethargic. Mrs. Pumphery, the owner of Ticki, took him to the hospital and the doctor was stunned to see such a fat dog like bloated sausage. He made a plan and kept the dog in a hospital where he was given healthy food at fixed intervals. Soon he sheds off lots of weight. When Mrs. Pumphery saw her active dog she thanked the doctor and thought that it was a triumph of surgery. It comprises 12 questions in total.

Chapter 2 – The Thief’s Story

Written by Ruskin Bond, this story has a simple plot with an important message. This is the story of a thief named Hari who knew how to make friends easily. Anil was a writer and Hari met Anil at the wrestling match. Hari trusted him completely and promised him to teach how to write and add numbers. Both started living together. Now, what happened next – Did Hari betray Anil’s trust or faith and compassion had would change a thief into a gentleman. There are 10 questions given in the chapter.

Chapter 3 – The Midnight Visitor

In this lesson, you’ll be reading a story of Ausable, a secret agent, who was expecting to get a very important report. When Fowler and Ausable reached the room, Fowler got scared to see a tall and thin man who was holding a pistol. This tall and thin man is another agent Max who started threatening Ausable and demanded that secret report. Now, the story is about how Ausable handled Max and how he fooled him in the name of an imaginary balcony that didn’t even exist. It includes 9 questions.

Chapter 4 – A Question of Trust

This is the story of a thief named Horace Danby. He made locks and had two helpers. Horace robbed a safe every year. This time, he decided to burgle the house of Shotover Grange. When he reached there, the young lady caught him and told that she won’t tell police about him if he helped her in taking her jewels from the bank’s safe. After 2 days, police had arrested Horace for the jewel robbery. Students can read the story and find what actually had happened, why Horace now gets angry when anyone talks about Honour among thieves. It comprises 10 questions.

Chapter 5 – Footprints without Feet

The chapter Footprints without feet narrates the story of an eccentric scientist, Griffin, who discovered a rare drug that could make a naked man invisible. He decided to take revenge from his landlord who didn’t like him. One day, he set his landlord’s house on fire and drank his drug. He could see everyone but none could see him. This story is about instead of using that rare drug for people’s sake of benefit, how Griffin had misused the same and troubled other people. A total of 7 questions are given in this chapter.

Chapter 6 – The Making of a Scientist

The story is all about the scientist named Richard Ebright who had received the Searle Scholar award and Schering Plough award for his excellent work in biochemistry and molecular biology. That scientist had a deep fascination for butterflies. He used to collect butterflies with a desire to know about them completely. Richard Ebright had a driving curiosity along with a bright mind. Here, students will be learning about how his fascination had opened the world of science for him. This chapter involves 7 questions.

Chapter 7 – The Necklace

In this lesson, you would read the story of Matilda who was born to a low-class family. She was then married to Monsieur Loisel, a clerk. Matilda got an invitation from a grand party. She had a beautiful dress to wear but no jewelry. Matilda borrowed a necklace from her friend. She was happy as she was looking gorgeous and classy. She danced at the ball party with great enthusiasm. But when she reached home, she noticed that the necklace was missing. Now, what happened next – Did she find the necklace and what price she had to pay for the same. This chapter covers 8 questions.

Chapter 8 – The Hack Driver

This chapter is all about a young lawyer who was made to serve summons instead of practicing law in the court. Once he went to a village to serve to summon to Oliver Lutkins. A friendly Hack driver took him around the village in the search of Lutkins. That driver told the lawyer he saw Lutkins an hour before but Lutkins was a hard fellow to catch. You’ll have to read the complete lesson to know who Oliver Lutkins actually was and did the lawyer find him. It includes 11 questions.

Chapter 9 – Bholi

This story is all about the girl named Sulekha but everyone called her Bholi, the simpleton. She had a problem of stammering and thus everyone made fun of her. As she was quite different from her siblings and thus she got neglected at home from her very childhood. Her father sent Bholi to the school on the command of Tehsildar. The teacher noticed Bholi deeply and took a special interest in her. That teacher became her true mentor and helped Bholi in gaining some confidence. There are 10 questions in this chapter.

Chapter 10 – The Book that Saved the Earth

This chapter The Book the Saved the Earth is full of imagination. There was a famous nursery book named Mother Goose that could save the planet Earth from the Martian invasion. This play had several different characteristics namely Think – Tank, Noodle, Oop, Omega, etc. Students will get to read the play whose time set is 25th century i.e. four centuries in the future. It basically tells the details of how the book of nursery rhymes of English can save the whole planet successfully. The play is beautifully written by Claire Boiko. A total of 7 questions are covered in this chapter.

Unseen Passage English: 5 case study-based comprehension passage Reading for Class 10

Here you will find our collection of case study-based comprehension passage English exercises, a new addition to the CBSE curriculum designed to improve your comprehension passage reading skills.

Unseen Passage English 1: Comprehension Passage Reading and Questions

1. The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development , most importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability — environmental, social, and economic – is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The various ‘Tourism Terms’ are defined as follows:

1.Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed:

Age: 35 – 54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: 50% female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found. Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets. Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists. Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.) Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists— (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days. Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%). Important elements of trip: Experienced ecotourists top three responses were: (a) wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) hiking/trekking. Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/ nature, (b) new experiences/places.

After reading the comprehension passage, proceed to the questions that test your understanding.

(i) In the line “……….. recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” does not refer to: (a) a basis for something. (b) the criterion required. (c) the ability to launch something new. (d) a standard point of reference.

(ii) The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that: (a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from international tourists. (b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. (c) many international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries. (d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one.

(iii) Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following: 1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she? 2. Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he? (a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist. (b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist. (c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist. (d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist.

(iv) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of geotourism.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 5 and 6 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 5

(v) In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that: (a) female ecotourists were more than the male ecotourists. (b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males. (c) the choice of things to do on a trip were quite similar for both the genders. (d) male ecotourists were frequent travellers.

(vi) According to the survey, one of the most powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to invest in new trips was: (a) setting up work stations in new places. (b) the chance to go camping in the wild. (c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers. (d) the opportunity to travel to new places.

(vii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE. (a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism. (b) The tourism business currently recognises sustainability as an important factor. (c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. (d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.

(viii) The survey clearly showed that the age range of ecotourists: (a) remained the same for the choice of tourist attractions to visit. (b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip. (c) fluctuated due to male-female ratio. (d) was constant across various features of the trip.

(ix) The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers. (True/False) (x) According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourist who did not prefer to travel was………….

 Answers:

(i)(c) the ability to launch something new. (ii) (b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. (iii)(b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist. (iv) (c) 2 and 4 (v) (b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males. (vi) (d) the opportunity to travel to new places. (vii) (c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. (viii) (b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip. (ix) True (x) 75%

Download the Above Passage in PDF (Printable)

Unseen Passage English 2: Analyze and Answer

1. More than 87,000 healthcare workers have been infected with Covid-19, with just six states – Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, West Bengal and Gujarat – accounting for three-fourths (around 74%) of the case burden and over 86% of the 573 deaths due to the infection, official data showed. Maharashtra alone, with the highest number of over 7.3 lakh confirmed Covid cases so far, accounts for around 28% of the infected healthcare workers and over 60% of the total deaths, according to the data. 2. While Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had tested over one lakh healthcare workers each till August 28, Karnataka reported only 12,260 infected healthcare workers – almost half the burden in Maharashtra. Tamil Nadu reported 11,169 cases that included doctors, nurses and Asha workers. The three states together accounted for 55% of the total cases among health workers. Risk to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s Covid fight – The three states also reported the highest number of deaths in healthcare professionals, though with a wide gap between Maharashtra and the other two. While Maharashtra reported 292 deaths among healthcare workers, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had 46 and 49 deaths, respectively.

Covid-19 Cases till August 2020

3. A large number of infections and even deaths of healthcare workers in particular states is being viewed with concern by officials and public health experts, who say risks to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s fight against the pandemic. The issue, discussed in a review meeting headed by the cabinet secretary on Thursday, saw the Centre cautioning states about the need to protect a crucial resource. The possible factors responsible for high infections, officials said, were lax infection control in hospitals and the need for stringent containment measures in areas where health professionals reside to safeguard them. 4. Despite the high number of cases, the government has received only 143 claims since April under the 50 lakh Covid-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in Covid mitigation activities. Official sources said the wide gap between the number of deaths and claims could be because all the casualties may not be eligible under the scheme. Besides, the claims are a bit slow in coming as families of the dead take time to apply and do the required paperwork.  5. ‘Solidarity with health workers cannot be met with mere words of encouragement but by concerted efforts to strengthen the health workforce. Safety net for their families should be provided including a term insurance cover of overt 2 crore, with the government as sole guarantee,’ said Giridhar Babu, epidemiologist at the Public Health Foundation of India. ‘Protecting healthcare workers is of paramount importance to make sure we have a large enough force to take care of patients who need their services’ said Dr H Sudarshan Ballal, chairman, Manipal Hospitals, who said such workers may be at risk because of a large number of asymptomatic patients and lack of proper use of PPEs.                                    ( Source : The Times of India/health Ministry)

(i) In the line “… risks to frontline workers”, the term ‘frontline workers’ does NOT refer to: (a) healthcare workers (b) police (c) cleanliness workers (d) teachers

(ii) Which state of India was on the top in terms of confirmed COVID-19 cases? (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Delhi (d) Maharashtra

(iii) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the factors responsible for high infection in healthcare professionals. 1. Careless infection control in hospital  2. Negligency by healthcare professionals  3. Lack of stringest containment measure  4. The lack of healthcare professionals  (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

(iv) How many healthcare workers, infected with COVID-19, were there in Karnataka till August 2020? (a) 11,169 (b) 12,260 (c) 1,07,100 (d) 15,213

(v) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE. (a) Maharashtra was the worst sufferer of Covid-19. (b) Karnataka had less number of Covid-19 cases as compared to Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. (c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials. (d) Most of the families of deceased healthcare workers received रु50 lakh under Covid-19 insurance scheme.

(vi) How many claims has the government received since April 2020 under the ? 50 lakh COVID-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in COVID-19 alleviation activities? (a) 49 claims (b) 51 claims (c) 46 claims (d) 143 claims

(vii) ‘Healthcare workers’ refers to………….  (viii) On how many healthcare workers have COVID-19 tests been conducted in Punjab? (ix) Lax infection control in hospitals is the main reason for high infection among healthcare workers. (True/False)                                                                    (x) What does the term ‘concerted efforts’ in pars 5 mean?

(i)(d) teachers (ii) (d) Maharashtra (iii)(c) 1 and 3 (iv) (b) 12,260 (v) (c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials. (vi) (d) 143 claims (vii) doctors, nurses, Asha workers, etc. (viii) On 13,141 healthcare workers COVID-19 tests have been conducted in Punjab. (ix) True (x) The term ‘concerted efforts’ means ‘collective efforts’.

Unseen Passage English 3: Reading Comprehension Exercise

1. Natural calamities generally bring death and disaster on a large scale. Tsunami waves, earthquakes, floods, droughts and epidemics have taken a heavy toll of human lives, particularly the children. The children who survive these disasters suffer the most. They are condemned to lead a life full of misery, insecurity, want and fear. Only the concerted efforts of the Government and the agencies involved in disaster management can help them lead normal lives again.

2. The natural calamities have tragically affected the lives of about 15000 children in recent years in India. The tsunami waves and earthquakes created havoc on a large scale. About 5430 children became homeless due to the tsunami and 5438 were the victims of the earthquakes. Floods displaced 2602 and droughts affected 2036 children. Epidemics affected 1313 children. Out of these figures, 1093 children live constantly in general fear; 110 children have withdrawn socially; 20 children have become deaf and 16 of them can’t speak any more. More than 450 children can’t sleep at night while 1164 can’t concentrate on anything. The tragedy is that 21 of them have become blind, 43 asthmatic and 276 are still in shock. 566 suffer from frequent headache and stomachache. About 850 children fear water and sound and 117 have refused to go to school.

3. Disaster management programmes have not Epidemic proved up to the mark and up to the task. The Government and the concerned agencies should provide comprehensive aids and help to the survivors, particularly the children. They must provide nutritious food, clothes, shelters and medical aids to them. MI efforts should be made to wipe out the scars left by these disasters.

(i) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

(ii) What can make the lives of the children , affected with various disasters, normal? (a) The concerted efforts of the government. (b) The concerted efforts of the agencies involved in disaster management. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(iii) As per the histogram, the most disastrous natural calamity for children is: (a) Earthquake (b) Tsunami (c) Flood (d) Drought

(iv) The number of children suffering from frequent headache and stomach ache is: (a) 839 (b) 1,164 (c) 110 (d) 566

(v) Who should be responsible for providing the disaster affected children with nutritious food , clothes, shelters and medical aids? (a) The Government (b) The concerned agencies (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vi) Which of these are the examples of natural calamities? (a) Floods (b) Tsunamis (c) Earthquakes (d) All of these

(vii) Who among the following are the worst sufferers of natural calamities? (a) Elderly people (b) Youth (c) Children (d) Adults

(viii) Natural calamities generally cause ………. on a large scale. (ix) The role of Disaster Management Programmes in resolving the problems of natural calamities is very bad. (True/False) (x) The antonym of ‘occasional’ in pare 2 is………… .

(i)(b) 2 and 5 (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (iii)(b) Tsunami (iv) (d) 566 (v) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vi) (d) All of these (vii) (c) Children (viii) death and disaster (ix) False (x) Frequent

Case Study-Based Comprehension Passage – 4

1. Over 80% of fatalities in road accidents in India happened due to speeding and dangerous or driving a comparative analysis of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data since 2014 shows. While this careless corroborates the popular perception of how people drive on the road in a country where getting a driving licence is often said to b . be too easy. Experts said most of the fatal accidents are recorded by police under speeding and dangerous driving categories in the FIR as there are no other provisions in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) for such offences. 2. According to the latest NCRB report on accidental deaths, 83.2% of road fatalities were on account of these two types of violations and the rest 16.8% of fatalities were due to reasons including drunk driving, bad weather conditions and mechanical defect. In 2014, when such causes of fatal crashes were first compiled, 89.4% of the deaths were due to speeding and dangerous or careless driving as per the police records and this was the highest ever. 3. “We face a host of challenges ranging from poor system of issuing driving licences to almost zero scientific investigation of fatal crashes, which are provided in the law. Most of our national highways and state highways, which pass through villages, have no pedestrian crossings. On the top of this, in all fatal cases, police automatically registers them under section 279 (negligent driving resulting death) of the IPC,” said mad safety expert Rohit Baluja, who has been a regular guest faculty at Indian Police Academy, Hyderabad. 4. Confirming this, traffic adviser in Punjab, government, Navdeep Asija said in case of all fatal accidents, the provisions of IPC are slapped. “In IPC, any crime or offence has to be lodged against a human being and hence there cannot be any charge against a road, vehicle or any other object. That’s why police data may not indicate the exact reason of crashes. But it is also a fact that violation of traffic rules is rampant on roads and only electronic surveillance can put a check on them,” he added.

5.Baluja said there is a need to define what is dangerous driving and the norms for fixing speed limits. “In Delhi, the speed limit is same across major roads, Year residential areas and markets during day lean time and at night as well. No authorities are held responsible for deficiencies on their part,” he pointed out. Though the amended Motor Vehicle Act has included a provision to hold road owning agencies, contractors and consultants in case of fatal accidents due to faulty road construction or design, the government is yet to notify the process for this.                                                  ( Source: Times of India)

(i) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists accurate speed limit rules authorised in Delhi. 1. Different speed limits for major roads and residential areas. 2. Same speed limit for major roads and residential areas. 3. Same speed limit during day time and at night as well. (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Only 2

(ii) According to the latest NCRB report, what percentage of total fatal road accidents occur due to high speed driving and rash driving? (a) 16.8% (b) 32.3% (c) 27.5% (d) 83.2%

(iii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TURE. (a) Police data may not indicate the exact reason of crashes. (b) Fatal accidents may occur due to faulty road construction. (c) Violation of traffic rules is hardly observed on roads. (d) IPC stands for Indian Penal Code.

(iv) In the line “……… the norms for fixing speed”, the word “norm” DOES NOT refer to: (a) a model (b) a standard (c) usual (d) exception

(v) As per the amended Motor Vehicle Act, who among these are also held responsible for fatal road accidents? (a) Road contractors (b) Road consultants (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vi) According to NCRB, which of these factors is/ are responsible for fatal road accidents? (a) High speed driving (b) Rash driving (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vii) In which year were the causes of fatal crashes first compiled? (viii) According to the traffic adviser in Punjab government, any crime of offence must be lodged against………..  (ix) The data displays that the largest number of road accidents took place in 2016. (True/False) (x) Which word in para 4 is similar in meaning to ‘observation’?

(i)(c) Both 2 and 3 (ii) (d) 83.2% (iii)(c) Violation of traffic rules is hardly observed on roads. (iv) (d) exception (v) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vi) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vii) The causes of fatal crashes first compiled in 2014. (viii) human being only (ix) False (x) Surveillance

Unseen Passage English 5: Reading Comprehension Exercise

1. There are visible signs of economic rejuvenation since the second half of May, with the second wave of the pandemic abating in most parts of the country and state governments lifting restrictions in phases, a finance ministry report said on 10 August 2021 while calling for sustaining the vaccination progress and the need for Covid-appropriate behaviour. “The receding of India’s second wave, along with rapid progress in vaccination, has set the stage to further accelerate economic recovery. The movement of high frequency indicators in July clearly point towards a broad-based economic revival,” said the finance ministry’s monthly economic report for July, adding that these signs resonate with the fact that the economic impact of the second wave is expected to be muted. 2. It said PMI manufacturing sharply rebounded to be in expansionary zone across output and input sub-components of the index. Marking swift economic recovery, GST collection has reclaimed its ‘ 1 lakh crore-plus territory in July, signifying increased business and consumer activity. Rail freight at 112.7 MT in July hit a record for the month and registered 18.3% growth (year-on-year) and 13.2% rise compared to pre-Covid July 2019. The surge in economic activity is further corroborated by trends in Kharif sowing, fertiliser sales, power consumption, vehicle registrations, highway toll collections, e-way bills and digital transactions, said the report. “Latest available data on growth of eight core industries, auto sales, tractor sales, port traffic, air passenger traffic, also indicate sequential improvement from the contraction induced by the second wave,” it further added.

3. “At this juncture, the economy and society are at a crucial inflection point where sustenance of economic recovery, vaccination progress and Covid-19 appropriate behavioural strategies are needed in close synergy with each other.” It said that having antibodies reduces the probability of acquiring serious illnesses, as is borne by studies. So, any subsequent waves are expected to be mild in terms of severity of disease.

[ Source : Times of India )]

(i) Why do you think the Indian economy is reviving now? (a) The second wave of pandemic is coming down. (b) Restrictions imposed due to Covid-19 are gradually lifted. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(ii) In order to control and prevent Covid-19 cases, which of these is must? (a) Strictly following Covid-19 protocols (b) maintaining the vaccination progress (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

(iii)  The term ‘Covid-appropriate behaviour’ refers to: (a) maintaining appropriate social distancing (b) wearing mask when going out of home (c) washing hands with soap and water and applying sanitizer frequently (d) all of the above

(iv) What does the line “… the economic impact of the second wave is expected to be muted” mean? (a) The impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be very disastrous. (b) The adverse impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a very less extent. (c) The impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a large extent. (d) The consequence of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic would be positive for economy.

(v) Based on the passage, what would be the impact of imminent wave Covid-19 pandemic in terms of severity of disease? (a) very serious (b) enormous (c) mild (d) deadly

(vi) What does the GST collection of rupees 1 lakh crore plus territory in July 2021 reflect? (a) Nominal business and consumer activity were done in July 2021. (b) The condition of business and consumer activity was very bad in July 2021. (c) Decreased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021. (d) Increased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021.

(vii) Which one of these is an example of the term ‘year-on-year’? (a) In March 2016, Aditi had received his electricity bill of 1540 and in May 2017, he received his electricity bill of रु450. (b) In February 2020, I had earned 220,000, but in March 2020, I earned रु 15,000. (c) In June 2020, Aryan had received his electricity bill of रु 1450 and in June 2021, he received the same supposed amount of his electricity bill. (d) In May 2020, Sneha had spent 225,000 on household expenditure but in August 2020, she spent रु 30,000 on household expenditure.

(viii) Kiaan was vaccinated twice against Covid-19 virus. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Kiaan according to the passage? (a) Covid-19 virus cannot affect him at all now. (b) He may even acquire serious illness if he is infected by Covid-19 virus. (c) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may become ill but his illness cannot be very serious. (d) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may even die of it.

(ix) According to the Bar graph, approximately on the area of 600 lakh hectares the work of Kharif sowing was done altogether by 6 August 2021 in our country. (True/False) (x) Which word in pare 3 is the synonym of ‘ensuing’?

(i)(c) Both (a) and (b) (ii) (c) both (a) and (b) (iii)(d) all of the above (iv) (b) The adverse impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a very less extent. (v) (c) mild (vi) (d) Increased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021. (vii) (c) In June 2020, Aryan had received his electricity bill of 21450 and in June 2021, he received the same supposed amount of his electricity bill. (viii) (c) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may become ill but his illness cannot be very serious. (ix) False (x) Subsequent

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CBSE MCQ for Class 10 English Case Based Factual Passage Free PDF

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Important CBSE Class 10 Case Study Based Questions 2024: Source-Based Questions & Answers for Quick Revision

Important case study questions for cbse class 10: practice important case study/source-based questions from essential themes of cbse class 10. these source-based questions are important for the upcoming cbse class 10  board exam 2024..

CBSE Class 10 Exam 2024: CBSE Class 10 introduces Case Study Based Questions to enhance students' analytical and problem-solving skills. These questions present real-life scenarios or situations, triggering students to apply their knowledge to solve them. Overall, Case Study Based Questions are a valuable addition to the CBSE curriculum, encouraging active learning and preparing students for real-life challenges.

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CBSE Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study

Cbse class 10 english chapter analytical paragraph writing case study questions pdfs.

If you are looking for the CBSE Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study Questions in PDF, then you are in the right place. CBSE 10th Class Case Study for the English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subject is available here on this website. These Case studies can help the students to solve the different types of questions that are based on the case study.

CBSE Board will be asking case study questions based on English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing subjects in the upcoming board exams. Thus, it becomes an essential resource to study. 

The English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subject case study for class 10th covers a wide range of chapters from the English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing. Students willing to score good marks in their board exams can use it. The questions are highly interactive and it allows students to use their thoughts and skills to solve such kinds of questions.

Download CBSE Board Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study (Passage Based)

Download links of class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing case study questions pdf is given on this website. Students can download them for free of cost because it is going to help them to practice questions.

Case Study Questions Class 10 from English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing subjects includes all chapters wise questions. A few passages are given in the case study PDF of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing. Students can download them to read and solve the relevant questions that are given below the passage.

CBSE Class 10 Case Study Questions of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing are quite easy to solve if you have a good basic knowledge of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subjects. For gaining the basic knowledge students can refer to the NCERT Class 10th Textbooks . After gaining the basic information students can easily solve the case study questions.

Case Study Type Questions in English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Class 10

Case Study Type Questions in English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Class 10 includes the information or data. Students willing to solve them are required to read the passage carefully and then solve them. While solving the paragraph the ideal way is to highlight the key information or given data.

Because, later it will ease them to write the final answers. English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case study type questions consist of 4 to 5 questions that should be answered in MCQ manner. 

While reading the paragraph students will get the clue in between about the possible answer of the question. They should definitely highlight those questions. This is the best way to solve such kind of Case study Type Questions.

Also, before solving the Case study type questions it is ideal to use the Revision Notes to brush up the previous learnings.

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NCERT Solutions Class 10 English

Ncert solutions for class 10 english, ncert solutions for class 10 english chapter-wise – download free pdf (updated for 2023-24).

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English include a variety of units containing prose lessons and poems with exercise questions, as per the NCERT Class 10 English syllabus. Every question from the NCERT Class 10 English textbooks – First Flight (Main Book) and Footprints without Feet (Supplementary Book) has been covered in these solutions. The NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English have been solved by our subject-matter experts in a comprehensive manner and in accordance with the latest CBSE syllabus.

Considering the uber-competitive era, it’s extremely important for Class 10 students to prepare themselves for their exams and face this challenging task with confidence. To score good marks, students need to focus on important questions for Class 10 English NCERT and prepare well and have a thorough understanding of different concepts mentioned in all the textbook lessons. Here, we bring you the most reliable BYJU’S NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English that will help students create an in-depth knowledge of key concepts and ace their exams without a hitch.

Each student is unique and has different skills, which helps them to acquire knowledge while learning each chapter. In the old days, exams were focused on ranks and marks, while now it is dependent on the discerning and analytical thinking abilities of students. The faculty prepare the notes with efforts to make new-age students prepare appropriately before the final exam. The NCERT Solutions help to revise the entire NCERT Syllabus and score well.

NCERT Solutions of Class 10 English

Here, we have provided the links to the unit-wise NCERT Class 10 English Solutions of the Main textbook, First Flight and the Supplementary textbook, Footprints without Feet.

First Flight Textbook Solutions:

Revision is very important when it comes to board exams and other competitive exams. The study material at BYJU’S provides accurate and unique notes which are fine-tuned to help students perform well in the board exams. NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight will prevent the confusions that will arise in the students’ minds while answering the textbook questions. Compared to the other study materials available online, students will be able to frame proper answers based on the marks weightage of the CBSE board.

The following are the chapters that have been removed from the NCERT Class 10 English First Flight textbook 2023-24.

Chapter 5 –

The Hundred Dresses–I

Chapter 6 –

The Hundred Dresses–II

Supplementary Textbook, Footprints without Feet Solutions:

There are 10 chapters present in the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints without Feet . The solutions are prepared in a straightforward and concise manner highlighting the points which are important in each chapter. The subject experts prepare these solutions with the aim of providing a detailed summary and analysis of the chapters. You can get the chapter-wise solutions in both online and offline formats by clicking on the links provided here.

The following are the chapters that have been removed from the NCERT Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet textbook 2023-24.

The Hack Driver

Class 10 is an important phase in a student’s life as the marks scored will help them build their career. The NCERT Solutions at BYJU’S are designed with the objective of helping the students score well in the board exams irrespective of their grasping power. The solutions are completely based on the marks weightage and exam pattern designed by the latest CBSE board. For this purpose, students can rely on the solutions which are available at BYJU’S.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English PDFs to clear your doubts instantly.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English are designed comprehensively by our panel of expert teachers. Class 10 students would have an enjoyable learning experience while referring to our solutions, and this would definitely help them prepare to write the exams competently. The answers to the different questions in the textbook are given in detail to ensure better understanding among students. NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English in PDF format can be downloaded by the students from the links updated below and practise these questions before the exams, to stay ahead of their peers in class.

Key Features of BYJU’S NCERT Class 10 English Solutions

Some important features of BYJU’S NCERT Class 10 English Solutions are listed below:

• The chapters present in the  NCERT Class 10 English textbook are extensively covered.
• The elaborate solutions help students to understand the concepts thoroughly.
• These free download link of solutions PDF is available so that students can refer from any location at any time.
• These solutions are available online so that students can access them while learning these lessons at home.

Given above were some useful advantages of using the solutions of English NCERT Class 10 . Meanwhile, students can also enrol in BYJU’S and learn a variety of other subjects of the CBSE or NCERT syllabus for Class 10 effectively. They can also adopt a personalized learning experience in accordance with their grasping power and understanding.

Students can also download BYJU’S: The Learning App and obtain end-to-end assistance for Class 10. Besides, they can access lots of interactive learning videos, live online sessions and resources that make learning a delightful experience for them.

CBSE Class 10 English Marks Weightage (2023-24)

Frequently asked questions on ncert solutions for class 10 english, where and how to download ncert solutions for class 10 english.

The NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English are available for easy download on the BYJU’S website. The textbook questions present in the NCERT textbook of Class 10 English are solved in a detailed manner by our team of subject experts, according to the NCERT guidelines. The download links are provided under each chapter’s webpages.

What are the advantages of studying from BYJU’S NCERT Solutions Class 10 English?

There are ample benefits of studying from BYJU’S NCERT Solutions Class 10 English. Some of these include:

• It helps build a solid foundation for a Class 10 student in a particular subject.
• It promotes an in-depth understanding of every concept mentioned in the NCERT English syllabus.
• It helps in strengthening the linguistic and grammatical skills of a student.
• A student gets a better understanding of the weightage of questions from each chapter.
• By referring to BYJU’S NCERT Solutions Class 10 English, a student is able to prepare and score well in the exam.

Is NCERT Solutions the right book for CBSE Class 10 English students?

Does byju’s website provide free ncert class 10 english solutions , how do ncert solutions of class 10 english help in exam preparation, how many chapters are there in ncert class 10 english supplementary textbook.

There are 10 chapters present in the NCERT Class 10 English Supplementary textbook. A Triumph of Surgery, The Thief’s Story, The Midnight Visitor, A Question of Trust, Footprints without Feet, The Making of a Scientist, The Necklace, The Hack Driver, Bholi, The Book That Saved the Earth.

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Unseen Passage For Class 10 Factual CBSE With Answers

Factual passages: convey information in a straightforward and direct manner about a particular subject. Usually, the language and style are simple and clear. Factual passages may give instructions or descriptions or report of an event or a new finding.

Basic  English Grammar  rules can be tricky. In this article, we’ll get you started with the basics of sentence structure, punctuation, parts of speech, and more.

We also providing Extra Questions for Class 10 English Chapter wise.

Type 1 Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

1 Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another attraction–a floating post office on the Dal Lake in Srinagar, the first in the country. ‘Floating Post Office, Dal Lake’–claimed to be the only one such post office in the world–is built on an intricately carved maroon houseboat, fastened on the western edge of the Dal Lake.

2 This post office lets you avail of all the regular postal services available in the country while being afloat. The seal used on everything posted from Floating Post Office is unique–along with the date and address, it bears the design of a boatman rowing a shikara on the Dal Lake. The special. feature of this post office is that letters posted from here carry a special design which has the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake and Srinagar city. These pictures reach wherever these letters are posted to and hence promote Kashmir as a tourist destination across the world.

3 This is actually a heritage post office that has existed since British times. It was called Nehru Park Post Office before 2011. But then the chief postmaster John Samuel renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’.

4 The post office’s houseboat has two small rooms–one serves as the office and the other a small ‘museum that traces the philatelic history of the state postal department. It has a shop that sells postage stamps and other products.

5 But for the locals, Floating Post office is more than an object of fascination. 1–2 crore is deposited per month in Floating Post Office by communities living in and around the Dal Lake. The lake has several islets that are home to more than 50,000 people.

6. The greatest fear is the recurrence of 2014 like floods in which the houseboat had gone for a toss uncontrollably pushed by the flood. Rescue teams had to anchor it using special mechanism in a nearby highland. Then it was brought back on the Dal after the water receded. The biggest boon is that at no time of the year do you need a fan in this post–office!

Attempt the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read:

(a) Jammu and Kashmir has another attraction, the first in the country ………………………. . (i) A floating ATM (ii) A floating bank (iii) A floating post office (iv) A floating museum Answer: (iii)

(b) The greatest fear that the post office has is that ………………………. . (i) it can get drowned (ii) it can be looted (iii) it has less deposits (iv) the floods can ruin it Answer: (iv)

(c) The post office is of no use to the people of Kashmir. (True/False) Answer: False

(d) Chief postmaster John Samuel has renamed the post office. (True/False) Answer: True

(e) The post office is in an intricately carved houseboat. (True/False) Answer: True

(f) The post office’s houseboat has ……………………….. small rooms. Answer: two

(g) The heritage post office has existed since the ……………………….. times. Answer: British

(h) Find the word from the passage which means the same as “attraction”. (para 5) Answer: fascination

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

1 Then all the windows of the grey wooden house (Miss Hilton used to live here. She expired last week.), were thrown open, a thing I had never seen before. At the end of the day, a sign was nailed on the mango tree: FOR SALE.

2. Nobody in the street knew Miss Hilton. While she lived, her front gate was always locked and no one ever saw her leave or saw anybody go in. So even if you wanted to, you couldn’t feel sorry and say that you missed Miss Hilton.

3 When I think of her house I see just two colours. Grey and green. The green of the mango tree, the grey of the house and the grey of the high iron fence that prevented you from getting at the mangoes.

4 If your cricket ball fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard you never got it back. It wasn’t the mango season when Miss Hilton died. But we got back about ten or twelve of our cricket balls.

5 The house was sold and we were prepared to dislike the new owners even before they came. I think we were a little worried.

6 Already we had one resident of the street who kept on complaining about us to our parents. He complained that we played cricket on the pavement; and if we were not playing cricket he complained that we were making too much noise anyway.

7 One afternoon, when I came back from school Pal, said, “Is a man and a woman. She pretty, but he ugly like hell”. I didn’t see much. The front gate was open, but the windows were shut again. I heard a dog barking in an angry way.

8 One thing was settled pretty quickly. Whoever these people were they would never be the sort of people to complain that we were making noise and disturbing their sleep.

9. A lot of noise came from the house that night. The radio was going at full volume until midnight when the radio station closed down. The dog was barking and the man was shouting. I didn’t hear the woman.

(a) Miss Hilton’s house had just 2 colours ……………………….. (i) Grey and Black (ii) Grey and Blue (iii) Grey and Pink (iv) Grey and Green Answer: (iv)

(b) The sign ‘For Sale’ was hung on a ……………………….. (i) banyan tree (ii) mango tree (iii) oak tree (iv) guava tree Answer: (ii)

(c) Miss Hilton was a very friendly lady. (True/False) Answer: False

(d) You would always get your cricket balls if they fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard. (True/False) Answer: False

(e) The new owners of the house had a dog. (True/False) Answer: True

The iron fence did not let the boys get at the ………………………. on the tree. Answer: Mangoes

(g) Find a word in paragraph 8 which means the same as “arranged. Answer: settled

(h) Find a word in paragraph 6 which means ‘raised path for pedestrians at the side of a road’. Answer: pavement

3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

1. Varieties of birds migrate or travel from one region to another depending on the availability of food, habitat and climatic conditions.

2. In order to escape the severe winter of northern and central Asia, several migratory birds visit the Indian subcontinent during winter. Here they find optimal conditions of food and climate for their survival. Studies reveal that the quality of habitat and human disturbances along their migratory routes are the deciding factors of the number of migratory birds that come to a place.

3. Loss of habitat due to human encroachment, like settlement, grazing and agriculture, is regarded as the main reason for this decline. Scientists have observed that the breeding habitats of these birds are becoming fragmented and the tropical grounds surrounding the habitats are being destroyed.

4. According to ornithologist and professor of Zoology at the Jawaharlal Nehru University, Surya Prakash, the numbers per species of migratory birds have drastically gone down because of the loss of habitat, specially wetlands and aquatic ecosystems, due to commercial use of land and other anthropogenic factors.

5. The changing crop pattern is also seen as a major factor for the reduction in the number of migratory birds in India and certain birds have stopped visiting some areas due to such changes.

6. Delay in rainfall also leads to a delay in the arrival of migratory birds. Rains obstruct their flight and cause low visibility. Another cause of decline in migration to India is the large scale hunting of these birds. Birds like falcons are targets for many illegal hunters. In addition to this, the availability of food is also becoming scarce and various water bodies have dried up, thus robbing these birds of their habitat.

7. Unhygienic water, along with thin tree cover leads to lesser number of birds visiting man-made sanctuaries. High voltage power lines are another threat to the lives of these birds as they can get caught in between these lines and be electrocuted.

8. The World Migratory Bird Day is now celebrated to spread awareness about threats faced by migratory birds.

3.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, complete the following table.

Reasons for Lessening Numbers of Migratory Birds

3.2 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions. (a) Why do birds migrate from one region to another? (b) What are some factors that can lead to delays in the arrival of migratory birds? (c) Name the day that is celebrated to spread awareness about threats faced by migratory birds.

4. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

1. When was the last time you laughed a hearty, sidesplitting belly laugh that sent you reeling out of control?

2. Modem science confirms that this kind of laughter is not only enjoyable but also health-promoting. Laughter is an invigorating tonic that heightens and brightens the mood, gently releasing us from tensions and social constraints.

3. If you hate to workout, laughter (also called inner jogging) may be the exercise programme for you! A robust laugh gives the muscles of your face, shoulders, diaphragm and abdomen a good workout. The heart rate and blood pressure temporarily rise, breathing becomes faster and deeper and oxygen surges through your bloodstream. Sometimes your muscles go limp and your blood pressure may fall temporarily, leaving you in a mellow euphoria. A good laugh can bum up as many calories per hour as brisk walking.

4. Sadly, our culture seems to inhibit humour. Sometimes we repress our good humour, because we are afraid that others will think we are frivolous or foolish. But we need to cultivate a better sense of humour and to not care about others’ opinions about us; to let our sense of humour live and to seek out things that make us laugh.

6. Focus on yourself rather than others. If you can allow yourself the inevitable mistakes then you can laugh at yourself. A stressful situation can sometimes be transformed into a bit of fun if you can see the humour in it. Make sure that people around you are fun to be with. Certain people make you feel relaxed and happy. Spend more time with people who boost your mood. It can also trigger different thoughts that affect moods of sadness, happiness and anger. And if you can’t smile, fake it.

7. Not all humour is positive and healthy. Watch out for scorn, sarcasm, ridicule and contempt and inappropriate humour. And don’t joke about people’s names. They have to live with them. It is important to be sensitive.

8. Humour can be a powerful medicine and laughter can be contagious. The only side effect is pleasure.

4.1 Complete the answers for the questions given below. Each blank carried 1 mark. Answer questions worth 8 marks.

(a) What are the benefits of laughter? (i) heightens and brightens mood (ii) releases us from tensions and social constraints (iii) workout for ……………………………………………… . (iv) increases level of ……………………………………………… . (v) bums ……………………………………………… .

(b) State a few reasons why adults don’t laugh. (i) ……………………………………………… . (ii) seriousness ……………………………………………… . (c) How can one remain happy? (i) ……………………………………………… . (ii) spend time with ……………………………………………… .

(d) List the few types of negative humour. (i) scorn (ii) ……………………………………………… . (iii) ……………………………………………… . (iv) ……………………………………………… . (v) inappropriate humour (e) In terms of exercise, laughter is also known as ………………………………………………. (f) A good laughter also provides a good workout to the following parts of the body:

5. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

1. Nowadays everyone is trying to manage thoughts since the popular novel The Alchemist by Paulo Coelho encouraged the reader to chase his or her dreams.

2. Another bestseller The Secret added to the hype by propagating the theory that one can get anything just by thinking about it. On the other hand, serious seekers on the spiritual path are also after thought management and want to tame their thoughts and attain the state of thoughtlessness and to do this they go to any extent, like learning spiritual practices like vipassana and meditation.

3. It is easier to understand the attitude of people who want to get material comfort by changing their thoughts and are not concerned about the afterlife and will do anything to gain a better and comfortable life in the present. However, it is more difficult to understand the attitude of spiritual seekers because the coming and going of thoughts is a natural phenomenon and it is puzzling to understand why anyone would want to interfere with it and think of the mind as an obstacle.

4. The taming of thoughts and control of the mind can take upto many lifetimes and so Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, clearly say that a person in his or her next life starts from the point where he or she had left in the previous one.

5. In the same way, thoughts derive their power from us. They thrive on the energy we provide them when we get attached to them and also when we want to remove them. Hence, it is not surprising that spiritual seekers complain that they are not able to meditate or concentrate, a fact which fills them with guilt.

6. The alternative is to ignore the thoughts and if we don’t give them any attention they will go away.

5.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.

(a) Name the books that led to an increase in the concept of people trying to manage their thoughts. (b) Thought management is sought after by which two kinds of people ……………………………………………… and ………………………………………………. (c) What is the writer puzzled at? ……………………………………………… . (d) What do Yoga Sutras of Patanjali say? ……………………………………………… . (e) The two spiritual practices mentioned by the author are ……………………………………………… and ……………………………………………… . (f) Whose attitude does the author find it difficult to understand? (g) According to the author, the only way to make certain thoughts go away is to ……………………………………………….

Type 2 Questions

1. Salsa is a popular dance form considered to be a combination of Latin and Afro-Caribbean dances. It is a mixture of various roots and cultures and cannot be associated to a specific region. But a large part of the dance originated in the Cuban island.

2. The term ‘salsa’ actually means sauce in the Spanish language and is seen as a sensual dance that combines both sensuality and grace. It is a dance form where both the European and African cultures come together.

3. Various notions circulate regarding the origins of this particular dance form. According to one of them, when the French came to Cuba, they brought their own country dance along with them. Their native dance mixed with the native African dances like Guaguanco and gave rise to the salsa. As per another notion, the dance form of the native African slaves was known as rumba. The rumba got mixed with various other western dancing styles when these slaves were brought to America. The salsa thus originated from a mixture of various dance styles and cultures.

4. The term salsa was created in New York and there are different styles of salsa namely Cuban style, New York style, Los Angeles style, Colombian style and the Puerto Rican style, depending on the geographical locations from which they originated. Each style incorporates slightly different dance steps. Salsa branches also include the Colombian Salsa and the Miami-Style Salsa.

5. It is normally a couple dance where the male dancer and the female dancer complement each other perfectly. There are solo forms as well. The dance form usually consists of six different steps for music with eight counts.

6. Nowadays salsa is seen as a mode of exercise for people who want to get a toned body. It is a good way to maintain one’s body and also helps in relieving stress.

1.1 Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.

(a) Salsa represents the cultures of which nations? (b) What did the name rumba originate from? (c) How many types of salsa are there? Name a few types. (d) Write a few lines on how Salsa originated.

1.2 Choose the correct answer for the following questions.

(a) What is the word used for ‘amalgamation’ as given in the passage? (i) popular (ii) combination (iii) form (iv) dance

(b) Which of the following words used in the passage mean the same as ‘idea’? (i) notion (ii) associated (iii) root (iv) form

(c) What does the word ‘native’ used in the passage mean? (i) associated with a particular person to whom it belongs (ii) associated with a particular plant (iii) associated with a particular place to where it belongs (iv) none of the above

(d) What does the word ‘solo’ used in the passage mean? (i) a thing done by three people (ii) a thing particular to a culture (iii) a task done in a hurry (iv) a thing done by one person

1. Popularly known as the Amazon of India, Sundarban is a tidal mangrove forest that gets its name from the Sundari tree that is found there. Mangroves are the different varieties of trees that are found in marshy lands. The Sundarban forest consists of 10,200 sq km area, spread over India and Bangladesh. Sundarban is located at the confluence of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers and is part of the largest delta in the world. Its name means ‘beautiful forest’ in Bengali.

2. Sundarban has an extremely rich diversity of aquatic and terrestrial flora and fauna. Being the abode of the famous Royal Bengal tigers, Sundarban forms the largest tiger reserve and national park in India.

3. The area is known for its wide range of fauna including the chital deer, rhesus monkey, Javan rhinoceros, water buffalo, swamp deer and gaur. The aquatic fauna includes different varieties of fish, crabs, the well-known Gangetic dolphins, and the olive ridley turtles. The reptiles found there include the estuarine crocodiles, Indian python, king cobra, sea snakes, and terrapins.

4. Large parts of Sundarban have been protected. The tiger reserve was set up as early as 1973. Sundarban has been declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. But of late it is seen that the increasing human population of the area has led to an exploitation of timber and fish like shrimps and other biological resources. In some areas, mangrove forests are being cut leading to habitat loss. The regulation of the water flow has led to the reduction of the inflow of freshwater. The increasing level of salinity in the water has adversely affected the migration and breeding patterns of the fish. It is feared that large parts of the area will be underwater because of the rising water level of the Bay of Bengal due to global warming.

2.1 Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.

(a) Name the three rivers that empty into the Bay of Bengal near Sunderban. (b) What is Sundarban is named after?

3.2 Choose the correct answer for the following questions.

(a) Which of the following is a synonym of the word ‘entertainment’ as used in the passage? (i) working i (ii) bore (iii) amusement (iv) none of the above

(b) What does the word ‘jockey’ in the given passage mean? (i) a person who rides in horse races (ii) a person who takes care of all animals (iii) a person who organizes horse races % (iv) none of the above

(c) Which of the following words is an antonym of the word ‘immense’ as used in the passage? (i) major (ii) approved (iii) honest (iv) minute

(d) What does the word ‘subsidies’ mean as used in the passage? (i) a loan of money (ii) a pack of resources (iii) financial aid or discount (iv) expensive goods

1. Anger is usually defined as a strong feeling of hostility, displeasure, indignation, rage or annoyance. It is an emotional state that is accompanied by physiological and biological changes including an increase in heart rate and blood pressure, as well as an increase in the levels of one’s energy hormones, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. An angry mind often loses its capacity to think properly.

2. Anger can be caused by both external and internal events. You could be angry at a specific person (such as a co-worker or classmate) or event (a traffic jam, a cancelled flight), or your anger could be caused by worrying or brooding about your personal problems. Memories of traumatic or enraging events can also trigger angry feelings.

3. Anger in a limited quantity is considered to be good as it gives one an opportunity to unleash negative feelings. Anger is a natural, adaptive response to threats. A certain amount of anger is needed to fight, defend and justify ourselves in society. Hence anger in small quantities is needed for our survival, like it is justified to get angry when one feels that one’s rights have been denied. But excessive anger can lead to destructive results including violent actions.

4. Anger can range anywhere from mild irritation to wild, uncontrollable fury. Anger leads people to behave in an impulsive and rash manner which in turn car^lead to strained relationships in the public as well as private sphere.

5. One of the most commonly used anger management methods includes breathing exercises. A number of anger management courses are available nowadays to help one control one’s anger. It always helps to have someone from whom one can seek help and talk. It is important to learn how to express one’s anger assertively rather than aggressively. One can also substitute the thought that makes one angry with more pleasant thoughts. Nowadays mental health professionals and psychologists are also available to help people control their anger.

4.1 Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.

(a) What are the effects of anger? (b) What are the causes of angry feelings? (c) Why is anger in a limited quantity good? (d) Write a few lines on the range of types of anger.

4.2 Select appropriate synonyms for the following words from the passage out of the options provided.

(a) hostility (i) antagonism (ii) friendliness (iii) proximity (iv) behaviour

(b) personal (i) public (ii) familial (iii) private (iv) closeness

(c) aggressive (i) mild (ii) forceful (iii) passive (iv) calm

(d) pleasant (ii) cold (iii) uninviting (iv) None of the above

1. Calcium is a mineral that is found in abundance in the human body. Besides the fact that it is one of the most abundant minerals in the body, it is also one of the most important minerals.

2. Calcium is required for various functions in the body, but the maximum amount of calcium in the body is found in the bones and teeth. Calcium is required to maintain the strength of the bones. Some of the best sources of calcium are milk, yogurt, cheese, fish, and green leafy vegetables like cabbage and spinach.

3. The most common disease connected to calcium deficiency is rickets. Every time a child drinks a soft drink, he or she lays the groundwork for dangerous bone disease. Fizzy and sugary drinks do not cause osteoporosis. But, because they are often a substitute for a glass of milk, kids do not get the calcium and vitamin D they need to build a strong skeleton. Many of them also lead a sedentary lifestyle, so they do not get the bone-building benefits of vigorous exercise either. These children are not just in jeopardy of getting brittle bones and fractures in the future, but they could be at a risk of osteoporosis at a younger age than ever before.

4. The Indian Society for Bone and Mineral Research, a body of osteoporosis experts, is trying to spread awareness about this bone-crippling disease. Osteoporosis causes bones to become riddled with holes, like the framework of a house that has been attacked by termites. It causes loss of height, pain in the joints and back and fractures.

5. Doctors are of the view that a simple lifestyle and proper nutrition will help save our bones. They recommend adopting bone-friendly habits like—regular exercise, getting enough sunlight, and eating food which will give us adequate calcium. This way, we can keep our bones healthy and prevent osteoporosis.

5.1 Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.

(a) What are the symptoms of people with less calcium in their bodies? – (b) What is osteoporosis caused by? (c) Why has osteoporosis been compared to a framework of ‘a house attacked by termites’? (d) How does osteoporosis affect one’s bones?

5.2 Select appropriate antonyms for the following words from the passage out of the options provided.

(a) abundant (i) plenty (ii) meagre (iii) enough (iv) lot

(b) subsequent (i) following (ii) after (iii) preceding (iv) none of the above

(c) adequate (i) inadequate (ii) enough (iii) plenty (iv) none of the above

(d) prevent (i) hinder (ii) stop (iii) inhibit (iv) cause

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